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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 26.06.2025 09:29

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Why is it so common for married white women to have an affair with black men? Does it bother white guys?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.